It’s almost as if “significant” coefficients from your multivariable regression model *aren’t* inherently causal or biologically meaningful 
https://twitter.com/RottenInDenmark/status/1456197431192924161 …
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read the whole Hobbs thread, he addresses that https://twitter.com/RottenInDenmark/status/1456198236956463104?s=20 …
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Neither study actually assesses the causal effect of either of the variables highlighted, is my point. Regardless of any differences between the studies, neither can be interpreted as a biological or sociological effect.
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Right, and hence the importance of taking into account the existing and fairly extensive literature on causal pathways for both, rather than dismissing either through a statistically invalid comparison between two very different studies, no? Both are important questions/issues.
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