Do people know that the 1890 pandemic was likely caused by another coronavirus, OC43 (that was then novel?) Nowadays, no longer novel, it is one of the causes of the common cold. We're obviously not living in the OC43 pandemic since, and we won't live in a COVID pandemic forever.
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Personally, I'm for aggressive public health measures—too much preventable suffering. We don't put up with food poisoning, so why not better ventilation or other measures against respiratory illnesses, for example. But SARS-CoV-2 isn't some virus that stands against all biology.
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Also, flu pandemics happen, of course, but they too end once it is no longer novel to enough people. (And flu has a lot of tricks this virus does not have). Plus, we have vaccines now (we did not for flu for 1918 but that one ended, too). It sucks, truly, but it's not endless.
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Unlike many terrible *past* pandemics (yes, past), we have vaccines now. Ideally, we move forward by learning from all this: how to get ready for next time, and how to reduce disease burden from all respiratory illnesses. But viruses do not stand outside biology and history.
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One informed dissent to my "likely"—though I'll keep the original point: pandemics end and viruses don't stand outside of all known biology or history. We're facing a coronavirus (not the first time), and there are already vaccines.https://twitter.com/BallouxFrancois/status/1442534762783072259 …
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Another informed perspective on what else it may have been. (I'll repeat: it ended!)https://twitter.com/jbloom_lab/status/1442541684651225088 …
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Just read a report of someone double vaccinated having heart problems after a breakthrough. Could any common cold coronavirus do this in the immunocompetent? What is the theory: we would need many boosters/childhood infections before our immunity to SARS-Cov-2 is sufficient?
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Because simplest hypothesis seems simply to be that SARS-Cov-2 is more virulent. Would anyone make argument that SARS-1 or MERS are just like common cold coronaviruses once immunity present?
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