I don't think this is clear. WHO folks made this claim to us in a briefing and, somewhat stunned at the contradiction with existing studies, we persistently asked for the underlying data/studies for clarity. Did not get a response. At this point, I don't know what they mean.
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The briefing was basically urging everyone to focus on symptomatic cases. Nor pre- or a-. No clarity. I mean, fine, if that's the case, but we have so many studies suggesting a/pre/sub-clinical symptomatic transmission. If they have some sense of proportions, they should tell us.
End of conversation
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