Interesting - in the UK I grew up (i.e. got the impression from my parents who lived through it) thinking of postwar UK as through the end of food rationing in 1954 but I don't know how UK historians formally periodize it
I use "postwar" only for the years 1946-1948 at most. After that I definitely shift it to "Cold War." I consider that to be a meaningful distinction. But I think past 1948 it gets iffy to call things postwar.
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I mean, in the end, historical periodizations are based on what service they do for you (they are not natural categories). I can see other contexts (e.g. Europe in particular) where postwar makes sense. For US the distinction is less useful since we weren't in ruins in 1945.
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Yes, absolutely, the UK and US experiences after the war were rather different, and mainland Europe different again.
End of conversation
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