Nothing that the government provides is actually 'free'.
-
-
Why does it increase the likelihood that the funds are efficiently allocated for social welfare if the money is first forcefully expropriated from private earners, and then allocated by unelected bureaucrats with no skin in the game and strong principal-agent problems?
-
It doesn't. I'm not intending to make an argument for government competency
- 1 more reply
New conversation -
Loading seems to be taking a while.
Twitter may be over capacity or experiencing a momentary hiccup. Try again or visit Twitter Status for more information.