Is it inevitable that the parties in a 2-party system be split along the personality divide we see now (high openness + low conscientiousness vs. low openness + high conscientiousness), or do the party platforms basically determine how the US divvies itself up psychosocially?
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Right but the original question seems to presuppose causation, although I could be misreading/inferring. I buy the openness hypothesis, it's the conscientiousness bit that raises an eyebrow (although the correlation is relatively much weaker than openness).
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Also conscientiousness seems a bit of a malapropism for Mondak's definition, which is more closely aligned to some conception of morality than to ethics.
End of conversation
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