I'm not a voting expert so genuinely curious - do voters have more power in primaries b/c less voters (and from there, subdivided by party), thus 1 vote is more likely to influence an outcome than a general? If true, why does that prevent moderates from being successful?
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Thanks. Twitter will use this to make your timeline better. UndoUndo
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“Polarized our electorate and destroyed any semblance of cohesion on Capitol Hill” This is ahistorical. The early Republic was much more polarized than now; election cycles were far more crazy (eg Lincoln.) Wrt to Hill: for God’s sake, people were caned on the floor in the past.
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Imo polarization and partisanship is not a bug rather a feature. It’s built-in in the Madisonian two party framework and an advantage w FPTP districts (over, say, Westminster) creating fairer representation & national debates w larger Overton windows.
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What's the source for this? Thanks
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Hi mason, I saw this tweet when
@naval liked it. I have a small request. I am launching a new startup next month to reinvent Polling. I would really love your thoughts on the pre launch site. It’s http://www.walletpoll.com .Thanks. Twitter will use this to make your timeline better. UndoUndo
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Primary elections are an awful idea.
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Listen to this
End of conversation
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