isn't sanskrit considered indo-european? wikipedia says it is
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but that the dravidian languages are structurally unrelated to the entire indo-european family
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It doesn't claim to be all languages (Chinese and African languages are missing), only proto-indo-European (PIE) descended.
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Sanskrit is a small side node because it is a dead classics language so few living speakers. The chart is speaker-population-sized
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An interesting q is "Sanskrit derived" vocabulary. I suspect pop notion of common languages being "derived" from scholarly is 100% backwards
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Modern commoner langs are derived from dead commoner languages. "Sanskritization" is likely 75% shared historic roots rather than "descent"
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Point being, Sanskrit is rich, evil great-uncle not direct ancestor. I suspect same is true of other "classical" elite languages like Latin.
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by "sanskritised" do you mean deliberate and systematic insertion of sanskrit vocabulary?
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Yes. For Hindi it was living memory (why Doordarshan Hindi sounds unnatural): an actual committee sat down to purge Urdu/sub Sanskrit origin
Pre-Islam, Sanskrit was clearly the "prestige language": fast, elite-driven, "cosmopolitan" spread from top
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Main ancestor of Hindi is Khari-Boli, which was a Lucknow Islamic-terroir prestige language (replacing Persian). Hindi = KB-Urdu+Sanskrit
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that's interesting because i've also seen claims that urdu words crept into hindi due to a "high status" perception of urdu as more cultured
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Yeah, that's 2 stages: initial Islamization, and then the progressive era poetry tradition, where Sanskritization went against the grain
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I'm willing to bet the basis for the recognition is some royalty-sponsored elite works
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