Ontology problem. Can "interinstitutionality" (by analogy to "intersubjectivity") be considered the same as "public"?
That's my loose position as well, and the hypothesis I'm entertaining right now is that a sufficiently complete inventory of the explicitly defined bits would leave nothing meaningful to be caught in the catch-all.
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In my dissertation, I present an ontology where “capabilities” of organizations and individuals are automata (ie computers with physical sensors+effectors). “Routines” are programs that run on “capabilities”. 1/2
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“Institutions” (functional aspect) are protocols (communication and interaction) that are enacted by compatible “capabilities + routines”. 2/2
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