Ontology problem. Can "interinstitutionality" (by analogy to "intersubjectivity") be considered the same as "public"?
Now to the original question, the "public" is generally understood as some sort of aggregated mass of humans outside of a specific institutional context. They are being extra-institutionally human. Not even citizens (that's an institutional role involved in voting for example)
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So to ask if "public" can be reduced to "inter-institutionality" is to ask if so-called public behaviors are in fact reducible to a union of institutional behaviors. Ie explainable by combining all institutional roles (worker, citizen, neighborhood dweller, family person)
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The strongest counterargument I've heard is Corey Robin's idea that publics are created by intellectuals. They are effectively "audiences for specific arguments/narratives/discourses". But this has the weakness of being too partial a characterization
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