I find it extremely hard to understand that a SEPA transaction can be "disputed" because of insufficient funds. This happens in the case of the bank already providing the funds to the merchant, before realising their customer is out of funds.
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I mean. Why as bank would you transfer the merchant the money if the customer doesn't have the funds? Is there some timing mismatch between account balance and incoming transactions inside the SEPA system? Truly curious about this. cc
@ThijsNiks1 reply 0 retweets 0 likesShow this thread
Replying to @michiels
This should be rare but can happen for a couple of reasons: Timing mismatch, legal lien, previous credit on that account gets undone, etc
8:44 AM - 13 Nov 2020
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