.#SBF_FTX
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Before I finish, let’s do some math.
Assumptions:
FTX deposit base = $15bn
Alameda position notional = $1.3bn
Processed withdrawals pre bankruptcy = $5bn
Conversation
2/
First let’s assume that alameda’s position goes to zero for a loss to FTX of $1.3bn.
Net of customer deposits that’s $13.7bn
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Next we subtract the amount of processed withdrawals and come to $8.7bn.
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FTX stopped processing withdrawals after the $5bn because they ran out of funds. So how does Alameda going completely bust on FTX lead to a cessation of withdrawals? What happened to the other $8.7bn?
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Instead of telling us about the positions of the hedge fund you claim to not have managed, please explain how your exchange went bust when alameda only could have caused a $1.3bn loss to the exchange?
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Your ex has a theory of what happened to that $8.7bn, but I guess you have a different story? Why don’t you tell us since you are being so forthcoming with information. I look forward to your next post.
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