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Isn't it that way with pretty much every language? (every that has genders for words at all, that is, so not English :) )
All the romantic languages, yes. Not questioning the idea of gendered nouns, just curious if we know how the genders were decided or if it was just arbitrary
Not sure what is "romantic" tbh, but in my experience it's usually rather arbitrary and different per language.
Romantic languages are those that are derived from Latin, e.g. originated from the Roman empire
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