This actually isn't even specific to Spanish, any other romantic language speaking friends feel free to chime in as well
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Spanish speaking friends: Is there any documentation on how it was decided whether various objects were "male" or "female"? Or do various nouns just have particular genders for no specific reason beyond someone arbitrarily decided it at some point in the past?
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Right, I'm familiar with those rules. What in curious about is how it was decided e.g. that it would be mesa instead of meso or vestido instead of vestida
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Isn't it that way with pretty much every language? (every that has genders for words at all, that is, so not English :) )
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All the romantic languages, yes. Not questioning the idea of gendered nouns, just curious if we know how the genders were decided or if it was just arbitrary
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Thanks for the pointer, I'll give it a read! <3
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Case in point: El vestido.
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El vestido vs la camisa was actually what prompted me to tweet this XD
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As a native Spanish speaker I think it's sadly arbitrary. There are even some crazy rules the one that makes "fairy" be male in singular (el hada) but female in plural (las hadas)
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