Dumb question: if a trait is x% heritable, can you say anything about likelihood that an offspring of an affected individual has the trait?
@sarahdoingthing (say a binary trait with one affected parent/two affected parents)
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@sarahdoingthing Wait for @themattsimpson to come along and check my work here. -
@St_Rev @themattsimpson thanks!!
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@sarahdoingthing Not in any simple way, I don't think. Consider cases: 1) all cases of disorder A are caused by gene Q, but homozygous QQ > -
@St_Rev (the case I care about has lots of genes implicated if that makes it easier) - 1 more reply
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@sarahdoingthing > only expresses A 50% of the time. 2) Homozygous PP causes B 100% of the time but 50% of cases of B are idiopathic.Thanks. Twitter will use this to make your timeline better. UndoUndo
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@sarahdoingthing > likelihood of Q carrier offspring being affected is different from likelihood of P carrier offspring being affected.Thanks. Twitter will use this to make your timeline better. UndoUndo
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@sarahdoingthing > (I think) you'd find the correlation coefficient between A and Q is the same as between B and P, but >Thanks. Twitter will use this to make your timeline better. UndoUndo
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@sarahdoingthing Not 100% sure the math is right thoughThanks. Twitter will use this to make your timeline better. UndoUndo
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