I can't access it. How did they decide this was a causation and not mere correlation? From teaching in public schools, I can say that the lower-income schools do tend to have more unruly students, so how do we know if there is causality?
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Try googling for "The Long-Run Effects of Disruptive Peers" by Scott E. Carrell, Mark Hoekstra, and Elira Kuka
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Still wondering if this is due to "unruly children tend to associate with other unrulies."
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"we ask whether students in cohorts with an idiosyncratically high number of disruptive peers have worse long-run educational and labor market outcomes than students in the same school whose cohort had fewer disruptive peers" https://www.nber.org/papers/w22042.pdf …
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But regardless, it would be hard for anyone to show that more unruly students makes for better outcomes.
End of conversation
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“Wearing a red jacket during a rainy day while in elementary reduces income by 1% by age 44”
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But also increases lifetime adventure by 6.3%
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Sorry, folks. I was that kid!
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