Decree: "the RNC, its agents, servants, and employees ... ‘whether acting directly or indirectly through other party committees”
Pretty interesting declaration from RNC trying to avoid being back under consent decree for another 8 years in voter intimidation casehttps://twitter.com/rickhasen/status/793930957719932928 …
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Haven't the RNC already gone too far?
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Does this argument work on its face given the broad scope of the degree's language? (see my previous tweet)
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My problem is this: their basic argument is "We aren't doing it. States are doing it." 1/?
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But the states are a part of the whole. Moreover, that they're not funded directly by RNC should not be material 2/
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National parties (both DNC & RNC) provide $$ to state parties. Sometimes indirectly & thru back channels. 3/
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So the RNC is asking for a very narrow view of their role.
End of conversation
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