The American Declaration of Independence was illegitimate but Southern Secession wasn't.
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Assuming that the American Federal government was illegitimate then that means the South was not obligated to remain a part of it.
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Was the point of the AR that the British government was illegitimate (no taxation without representation)?
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They believed that the British government was illegitimate for that reason. I don't think they were correct though.
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I imagine that there were many that would say the same thing about the south.
End of conversation
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