A triangle with side lengths (0, 0, 0) is "equilateral"
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By a strict reading it is also Right.
I put it to you that while all right-angled triangles satisfy the Pythagorean theorem but the converse is not automatically true and this triangle does not have well-defined internal angles
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But so long as we're only using the Pythagorean theorem, we can just as well call this a right triangle without defined internal angles! It only runs into problems if you also require "triangles" satisfy the law of cosines.
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Arguably, that could make this a right triangle without being a triangle...
End of conversation
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