I was told last night that type `A with B` != `B with A` even though each subtypes t'other. I'm not convinced. Can anyone explain it to me?
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Linearization order differs?
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That determines the implementation, but shouldn't affect the type. Two different implementations of the same interface can have same type.
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By what aspect of *type* theory breaks if we assume `A with B` == `B with A`? I might be asking the wrong question, here...
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If only I could search scala-internals for <:< or =:= ........
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In your example, it looks like they're indistinguishable until you run them, which is very much not the type level... ;)
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due to linearization they can differ under projection, which is unsound.pic.twitter.com/uh6mWaJhd3
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i.e., you can use that to derive unsafeCoerce
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