foo(bar)
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Doesn’t “applied function” unambiguously mean that the *function* is applied?
It should, but I encounter the opposite enough times that I wondered what the conventional wisdom was...
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Me too :-)
Thanks. Twitter will use this to make your timeline better. UndoUndo
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Yes, the fuction is applied by the arguments. The same way seared steak is seared by the pa n.
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The function is applied but _to_ the arguments — to be fully explicit, "the code snippet foo(bar) applies function foo to arguments bar".
End of conversation
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