foo(bar)
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The grammar is clear: it is the function that is the object here.
I'm not convinced there are no two-word phrases in English which use the indirect object instead of the direct object, but the fact I can't think of any suggests that they're the exception rather than the rule.
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So that's good enough for me to know what is correct. But I'd also like to know what people interpret when they hear "x applied to y", and that seems to be more confused...
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Can the function be both the "object" and the "target"?pic.twitter.com/xQk802HWsa
End of conversation
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