I submit that it is unequivocally clear that I am referring the existence of the B/W group difference in phenotypic IQ, not its causes.https://twitter.com/primalpoly/status/865275129277759488 …
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Are you being sarcastic? You don't think 50,000 years -- 2,000 generations -- is enough time for populations to diverge somewhat?
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There's more variability within races than between them.
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That argument is irrelevant. It's called Lewontin's Fallacy. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Human_Genetic_Diversity:_Lewontin%27s_Fallacy …
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It depends on your definition of "diverge somewhat". If different races have remarkably different social outcomes, a small degree of genetic
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Difference is incredibly unlikely to explain that
End of conversation
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