If we're paying more for our government than we are for our housing and food, we're doing it wrong.
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Maybe. e.g., if you are rich and spend millions on food and housing, or if income inequality is tremendous, then a utilitarian rule could plausibly tax some individuals above their food+housing expenditure. I don't understand the basis for these rules.
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If quality of government services is high, we could conceivably want to spend a very large share of our income on them. How can a categorical statement about spending on food and spending on government be valid? Both are highly heterogeneous in value.
End of conversation
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Have you considered higher costs associated with patents vs. taxes? It’s strange to me the amount of worry that goes into public collected taxation vs. privately collected taxation. Desperately need to remember redistributive policies can flow from poor to rich as well.
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