The poor are poor because they're unproductive, not because they're exploited.
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Returns on labor have been dropping for decades, while productivity has been increasing - As a result, the same level of productivity, pays less money:https://www.mckinsey.com/featured-insights/employment-and-growth/a-new-look-at-the-declining-labor-share-of-income-in-the-united-states …
That's outdated and inaccurate, and in any case it doesn't contradict my point. Read this, for starters:https://www.washingtonpost.com/opinions/heres-why-poor-people-are-poor-says-a-conservative-black-academic/2015/09/03/df8ff1fc-1ab4-11e5-93b7-5eddc056ad8a_story.html …
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And it plainly contradicts your point - Hold productivity fixed, and drop income, which is what's happened, and you could end up poor, without changing your behavior, which is exactly what's happened. Surely you can power through the mathematics of that challenging argument.
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Where's the proof of exploitation? Or the consideration of all the reasons income may decrease even if productivity stays constant, if that were the case?
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