Really? You think the reason Zuck is so rich is that unions are weak? I think the reasons are (a) that companies can grow faster than they used to and (b) they cost less to start, so founders can retain a greater percentage of stock.
Your graph implies a causal relationship between these two lines. But surely the reason the share of income going to the top 10% plunged in 1942 was the US entry into WW II. So are you implying that increased union membership caused the US entry into WW II?
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It's like you're trying really hard NOT to understand him. Union power went up with the passage of the NLRA of 1935, and workers received a greater portion of the wealth their labor created. As union membership went down, more of the wealth went to the people at the top.
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Hmmm indeed what could have been happening in the 1930s that lead to increased union membership? And obviously the one quick plunge in the income is a result of World War II, just as the further increase in union membership was a result of World War II. What’s the contradiction?
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Take a look at countries where Unions have power and see how well those countries and their employees are.. look at Argentina for example...
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this is the weirdest possible, most nonsensical response First, there is more going on in the graph than just "WW2" (the graph spans 100 years) Second, he doesn't at any point say that increased union membership caused US entry into WW2. What are *you* talking about?
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Lou the Giving Fish is right Paul. Obfuscating has never helped an argument, ever.
End of conversation
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lmfao
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That's what you got out of that graph?
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