Is the term "dark ages" not a reference to the lack of sources? Because they were certainly dark in that respect.
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Replying to @paulg
That may be how some interpret the term, but it's not the way the term was originally conceived and is still mostly, used. And there are more sources available to historians than you might think, including forensic, artistic, legal, and literary.
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Replying to @paulg
Renaissance humanists trying to justify ignoring the previous thousand years in favor of a restoration of what they thought of as the more secular and intellectual antique period. They also came up with the term "Middle Ages" for the same reason.
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Replying to @paulg
It's usually attributed to Petrarch, at least in concept.
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Replying to @lisafdavis
I know he described the (early) medieval period as dark, but what I'm wondering is who first used the term "dark ages" (or the equivalent in another language) as a label for a period of history.
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Replying to @paulg
Here's a good summary:http://www.medievalists.net/2014/02/why-the-middle-ages-are-called-the-dark-ages/ …
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Replying to @lisafdavis
This suggests English writers were the first to use the phrase "dark ages" as a label, but it doesn't say which one. Do you know?
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Replying to @paulg
'fraid not. You'd have to do some Oxford English Dictionary kind of "first attested use" research to determine that.
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The reason I ask is that if we want to understand how the phrase was originally conceived, it would seem to be a prerequisite to know in whose mind this took place.
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Replying to @paulg
One thing we know for sure - people who lived in the Middle Ages didn't think of themselves as living in a dark or in-between era. They were just living.
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Replying to @lisafdavis @paulg
That is true for those who were not living in Europe.
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