Please don't refer to the early Middle Ages (or any part of the Middle Ages) as "The Dark Ages." The ten centuries from the Fall of Rome to Gutenberg (my preferred bookends) weren't all unicorns & rainbows, but they weren't all "dark" either. They were full of humans being human.
This suggests English writers were the first to use the phrase "dark ages" as a label, but it doesn't say which one. Do you know?
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'fraid not. You'd have to do some Oxford English Dictionary kind of "first attested use" research to determine that.
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The reason I ask is that if we want to understand how the phrase was originally conceived, it would seem to be a prerequisite to know in whose mind this took place.
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