Is it not the case that fully vaccinated = 2 doses if the second dose was within the past 6 months, or 3 doses if more than 6 months has passed since the second dose?
If fully vaccinated = 3 doses, vaccine coverage in low income countries is close to 0%
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Depends on your definition of protection. Training regardless of titre or T-cell response...2 shots. High enough antibody titre to overcome explosive replication in those with weaker T-cell responses...3 after waning.
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Many experts say this is a distribution problem, not a supply problem.
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Why would 3 doses in 7 months with waning efficacy be considered “fully” anything? V
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Yeah. That’s the scale of vax inequity.
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it is also about ab titers, meaning shots are for those with waning levels/to avoid this.
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I prefer a global 80% 2-dose coverage than a 50% 3-dose coverage
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And in high only 25-30% ?
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As of November 20th, 136 million Americans had 2 shots that were 6 months or older. According to the White House, 81 million of those are elderly. In just 17 days, the number will be 156 million. Of those, as of now 41 million have received boosters. https://www.whitehouse.gov/briefing-room/statements-releases/2021/12/02/fact-sheet-president-biden-announces-new-actions-to-protect-americans-against-the-delta-and-omicron-variants-as-we-battle-covid-19-this-winter/ …pic.twitter.com/qdZ0uaI0BO
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