Really? Did a pundit on Fox News say that? </sarcasm> The FBI is investigating Manafort since 2014. Among other things they had enough on him to get a FISA warrant. They even had enough to convince a judge to issue a warrant for a no-knock raid, which they lawfully executed.
-
-
Replying to @oe1cxw
Your ignorance of the FISA court is showing. (See wikipedia) FISA warrants are not criminal warrants, nor could they be. The fact of a FISA warrant is therefore not evidence of a crime, but more likely an abuse of the court. But, yes, we'll see how this plays out.
1 reply 0 retweets 0 likes -
Replying to @zipcpu
To get a FISA warrant against a US citizen ("United States person") the law enforcement agency must convince the judge that there is reason to believe the target was knowingly engaging in clandestine intelligence activities for a foreign power that violate American criminal laws.
2 replies 0 retweets 1 like -
Only for "any person other than a United States person" a FISA warrant can be issued without reason to believe that American criminal law is violated. 92 Stat. 1783 Title I Sec. 101 (b)(2).pic.twitter.com/rul5ShAC0W
1 reply 0 retweets 0 likes -
Replying to @oe1cxw
The FISA court therefore is not about prosecuting US persons, but rather as its name implies its purpose is to facilitate the gathering of intelligence on FOREIGN powers.
1 reply 0 retweets 0 likes -
Replying to @zipcpu
This is a strawmen. I did not say that FISC is about prosecuting US persons. I said you can't get a FISA warrant on a US person without being able to demonstrate that there is reason to believe that the US person is violating US criminal law.
1 reply 0 retweets 0 likes -
Replying to @oe1cxw
"Acting as an agent of a foreign power" is not equivalent to violating US criminal law. Many foreign governments hire US lobbyists. This in itself isn't a crime.
2 replies 0 retweets 0 likes -
The fact that a FISA warrant was (or was not--I don't really know) issued against Manafort in 2014 is therefore irrelevant to any criminal discussions.
1 reply 0 retweets 0 likes -
Replying to @zipcpu
It is, because Manafort is a US citizen, so Sec. 101 (b)(2) applies to him, not Sec. 101 (b)(1). Therefore violation of US criminal statute is required for a FISA warrant to be issued. I have quoted Sec. 101 (b) in full above so you can easily check for yourself.
1 reply 0 retweets 0 likes -
Replying to @oe1cxw
Ok. Read closer: "which activities involve or are about to involve a violation of the criminal statues of the US." "About to involve" implies the court is clairvoyant?? Not likely. Apparently it's a low bar to meet. Still can't use info in criminal court.
1 reply 0 retweets 0 likes
Ad. "may involve": Yes. It is a low bar. But that's nothing new about FISA.. Ad. use in criminal court: Again, assuming you are talking about the results of the wiretap (or whatever the FISA warrant was for): I never said that they could. That's a strawman argument. See above.
Loading seems to be taking a while.
Twitter may be over capacity or experiencing a momentary hiccup. Try again or visit Twitter Status for more information.