2/ It's often repeated that declining interest rates over the last 40 years created a bull market in bonds that is unlikely to ever be repeated again. I do not believe the facts actually support that narrative.
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3/ Let's start with a very simple graph: the price return versus the total return of the Vanguard Total Bond Market Index Fund (VBMFX)pic.twitter.com/fIpA9OB7UO
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Replying to @choffstein
What if... and hear me out, one considered the quarterly return of a 30yr zero equivalent to the price return PLUS the carry and long-end rolldown. And every quarter one sold it, and bought a new notional amount of a 30yr zero (i.e. if the 30yr zero was up, one took the 30yr zero
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Replying to @bauhiniacapital @choffstein
price, and reinvested that amount of money in a newly issued 30yr zero. Rinse and repeat every quarter for the last 30yrs. Is the dominant contributor then still distributions? Or is it duration and constant duration extension at a new 'par'? The problem with that first chart
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Replying to @bauhiniacapital @choffstein
is that a bond bought at par does not appreciate much if held to maturity then reinvested. And if one is running a not-very-long-duration benchmark, pull to par can be fierce.
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Replying to @bauhiniacapital
You didn't read the rest of the thread, did you.
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Replying to @choffstein
Tl;DR of my comments below: Yes I did. I may have gotten muddled, but there is weirdness involved at very long duration on higher vol which bothers me with the analysis structurally, and now I'm gonna go bang my head against a wall.
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Replying to @bauhiniacapital @choffstein
I did this way too quickly, but very roughly, for 30Y zeros the domination contribution has been duration return but for 10Y, 5Y or 2Y zeros the dominant contribution is carry and rolldown. My "rolldown" includes the risk-free return which would be subtracted ideally.pic.twitter.com/LvzU5xd51j
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All log returns so it decomposes into duration/rolldown nicely.
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Very interesting that the 30y have the highest *rolldown* returns of the bunch. I would have expected them to have the same or less, more than compensated of course by duration returns.
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There are two components, the pure rolldown effect (which is small for 30s and sometimes even negative) and pure yield level which is captured by duration shortening, which is more significant (that’s my intuition, haven’t checked)
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I assumed that was where you were capturing carry. What is the periodicity of duration re-lengthening in that model?
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Quarterly. To be clear the “rolldown” term in the charts captures both carry (ie maturity shortens so you earn starting roughly yield x dt) and rolldown (ie predictable yield change as maturity shortens so you earn approx duration x dy)
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