or re-centre (sticky delta)? In reality it will be somewhere in between. The new spot price is a datapoint with which you can update your "prior" probability distribution. So the degree of delta-stickiness is related to how important you think the new spot price is.
-
Show this thread
-
@volmagorov what do you think? I'm not sure this is yet a practical observation, but it seems to be a fairly interesting philosophical link.4 replies 0 retweets 5 likesShow this thread -
Replying to @robertmartin88 @volmagorov
I’m not an options guy but I thought this debate was resolved nearly 100% in favour of sticky delta? Most places model the smile as a function of moneyness so vol deltas on a price move are smaller.
2 replies 0 retweets 9 likes -
Replying to @macrocephalopod @volmagorov
From the options dudes i've been speaking to, there is near-unanimous agreement that sticky strike is wrong but not everyone agrees that pure sticky delta is right.
3 replies 0 retweets 3 likes -
Isn't this largely regime and asset dependent? But yeah, what macro said. I think I've seen some mixture models floating around.
1 reply 0 retweets 3 likes -
Yup, but I'm trying to reason about how exactly it depends on regime/asset. What drives the appropriateness of sticky strike/delta? e.g the shape of the smile depends on regime/asset, but we can reason about it in terms of flows (conscious that this may just be a narrative)
1 reply 0 retweets 2 likes -
Replying to @robertmartin88 @nope_its_lily and
for instance, equities smirk because of demand for downside protection while commods skew positive because of demand for upside protection from hedgers. So I wonder whether there is a more intuitive way of thinking about sticky strike vs delta and bayesian updating makes sense
2 replies 0 retweets 1 like -
One thing I’d think would be important is degree of mean reversion in the underlier. Equities don’t have much (so sticky delta more likely to be appropriate) whereas rates are more likely to mean revert (which would make sticky strike more relevant).
4 replies 1 retweet 12 likes -
Replying to @macrocephalopod @robertmartin88 and
Why would the sensitivity of the implied volatility at fixed strikes depend on the mean-reversion of underlying?
1 reply 0 retweets 1 like -
Replying to @ArturSepp @robertmartin88 and
Not an expert but eg if an index goes up 10% then you expect everything to rebase around the new level, no reason to expect reversion to the previous level so the old level ceases to matter. Another way to say it is that index level is scale free, the actual number has no meaning
2 replies 0 retweets 2 likes
But if swap rates go from 2% to 3%, that doesn’t mean the 2% level stops mattering. There might be a “natural level” of vol for 2% rates so the 2% strike is drawn to that level, but there is no natural level of vol for S&P 3000 or 4000 or 5000.
-
-
Replying to @macrocephalopod @ArturSepp and
This is all very hand wavey and as I said, I’m not an expert, just conjecturing wildly on a sunny weekend afternoon.
2 replies 0 retweets 1 like -
Replying to @macrocephalopod @ArturSepp and
Likewise! But nice to see that the shower thought has sparked a discussion
0 replies 0 retweets 1 like
End of conversation
New conversation -
Loading seems to be taking a while.
Twitter may be over capacity or experiencing a momentary hiccup. Try again or visit Twitter Status for more information.