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JPM argues that CTAs were a huge part of the 2014 oil price downturn. How does such financialization change the beta to inflation? Does it accelerate and extend the trends? Or does it diminish it? Does inclusion in an asset allocation change correlation to other assets?pic.twitter.com/f4iCjb6VM3
Do they actually argue it, or do they claim it without any evidence?
(Genuine question, I have not read this piece. Is it Kalanovic?)
I find that JPM’s notes are often, “shoot first, ask questions later.” Kolanovic is credited on this one.
we stan marko
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