the theory is that under a religious monopoly, there’s less religious participation, because the monopoly church gets lazy
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religious demand doesn’t vary that much, but deregulation allows firms to compete, supplying religious products to more people
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making me think strict ideological censorship by the government might be good (it would reduce politico-religious participation)
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Doesn’t the supply-side thesis beg the question as to why the supply would have changed in this way?
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yes - I don’t think he proposes a causal model of religious deregulation in this paper at least
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