Has anyone seen any good theories as to why depression and anxiety appear to be at all time highs in the 20-40 cohort? Or maybe it just SEEMS that way. Looking for really thoughtful analysis, not just glib “well have you seen the world around you” type answers
Replying to @liminal_warmth
I’m on the side of “there’s no evidence for a change” but also “the diagnostic constructs themselves are useless or worse”
1:39 PM - 20 Feb 2020
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