it seems uncontroversial but I can’t find the source or any attempt at quantifying - anyone remember what I’m talking about?
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I read the claim recently that compounds used recreationally are unusually likely to have therapeutic effects compared to random chemical
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they’re including drugs used by human communities throughout the world including psychedelics not just what we’d call “recreational”
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I think the actual explanation is something like this: 1. Druggies are trying to feel good specifically (positive affect, interestingness)
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2. Pharma is trying to “treat constructs” but what consumers actually care about is feeling good and nothing else matters much
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Mental illness constructs aren’t actually what people (consumers/patients) care about, they care about feeling shitty or not
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Since DSM tends to have “clinically significant distress” thresholds for disorders you should be able to knock them all out by fixing that
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End of conversation
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and/or serve as an exostomach for yet more beneficial microorganism slaves
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