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I guess I'm confused about what the point is doing? What civilizations correspond to the periods you're picking out in your historical point about logic? I would have thought there would be collapses in that period but maybe not!
Kuhn loss: change from theory X to Y, but not everything X could explain is explained by Y. That happens because centres of learning get wiped out (as e.g. with fall of Rome or the Inca), I'm just trying to rule out those cases - I want examples of more voluntary theory change.
Looking at all the theory changes between 1492 and 1880s unlikely to be informative here, I think, because just far too much happening - case of switch in logical research in Europe during Renaissance much more circumspect, would prefer comparison cases like that.
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