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Can you explain this further? I don't see how that's what that person is saying. Aren't they just saying that it *is* their fault, rather than that it has to be?
That's what they think the study in question shows, which is why they're taking exception to the methodology and making up a frankly preposterous Gay Awakening in the decade between 2008 and 2018
In fact, what the study *seems to show* is that it's more difficult now for men to have sex with women than it was ten years ago. That seems intuitively correct to me, but Not All Men seem to have the same experience.
More importantly, there doesn't appear to be any data to the contrary. When someone refuses to accept numbers because they can be read to show the wrong group being 'victims' - that's ideology baby
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