"Bob has achieved a thing, I have not achieved that exact same thing, therefore I'm not as generally competent as Bob" is a fallacy. (Not just an "unhelpful thought" in a psychological sense, but literally untrue.)
I think I know what you mean, but if so, there is a double flip. Or are you making some more important point about ordering that I'm not following?
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I'm not seeing my mistake. Verbal comparators ("better than", "larger than") refer to https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Partially_ordered_set …; those words only make sense where an ordering exists. In particular, antisymmetry is required.
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"A>B and B<A" Does A>B mean the same thing as B<A?
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