f(f(x)) = x² - x + 1
f(0) = ?
(@edsaperia inflicted this on me earlier :P )
There is no inverse to the function f(x)=1 if x is in R but there is f'a domain is restricted to {0}
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Yes but that is because here f is not a bijection until you restrict domain, so you can't invert it. I will try to think of a good example
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i have accepted that there is an answer and I will never discover it i am at peace
End of conversation
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