f(f(x)) = x² - x + 1
f(0) = ?
(@edsaperia inflicted this on me earlier :P )
Why? Having a smaller set of functions over a restricted range makes it possible at least that obstructions are removed
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If a real f solves above, then there exists complex g such that g=f on f's domain. Paper says there is no g that solves, even in f's domain
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