"Were Indian Famines ‘Natural’ Or ‘Manmade’?" Tirthankar Roy's critical survey of theories of 19th c. Indian famines http://www.lse.ac.uk/economicHistory/workingPapers/2016/WP243.pdf …
Skeptical of course because baseline could be counterfactual - industrialization similar to Japan under Marathas
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we will never know what cud hv been. But anyho, politics was by no means settled, wars likely.. outcome??
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Yep, some of that captured here:https://devayasna.wordpress.com/2016/09/03/conversations-a-future-that-could-have-been/ …
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why does the comparison always run toward Meiji, as opposed to Ottoman, Qajar, Khedival Egypt, or the Qing ?
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Oh, just bcz he mentioned Japan. Of those, Persia likely poorer (but more culturally united)..and
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..neither Egypt nor Qing made it, even tho A was early starter, B had great civilization, depth..
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actually Egypt had the earliest attempt at state-led industrialisation outside the Westhttps://twitter.com/pseudoerasmus/status/738690006932434944 …
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there are 3 major issueshttps://twitter.com/omarali50/status/832072033970319360 …
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Tokugawa Japan growing ('proto-industrial) unlike China & India both which had contact w West in declining period
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New conversation -
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will check later. But maps showing Marhatta empire hide fact that state-level organization was very weak..
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not at all like Japan..
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Yep the imagined system was a proto-Shogunate under the Peshwas.
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