I don’t know who needs to hear this but FFP does NOT normalize INR. The lowest you can get an INR down to with FFP is ~1.6. So stop giving it to reverse patients with INRs ≤ this value. It doesn’t work.
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Thanks! Hadn't seen this graph before. My thought was: in vitro studies never totally correct, in vivo total reversal occurs, but more slowly than you'd like. I didn't really have the concept of diminishing returns before, but this was my take home: https://www.mayoclinicproceedings.org/article/S0025-6196(13)00035-9/fulltext …pic.twitter.com/DDF6fjuYlw
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Sorry that wasn't in answer to your question but towards the general thread. Should give credit to
@iEMPharmD from where that image was found (apparently INR FFP = 1.1):https://empharmd.com/2018/05/21/what-is-the-inr-of-ffp/ …
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