Because we picked the meter that way?
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An interesting, but slightly flawed analysis. T is dependent on L, you cannot set both arbitrarily to numbers that assist in your "proof"
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Note that L was defined such that T=2 seconds. Yes, that's the original definition of the meter.
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The real question is why a dimensionless quantity is approximately equal to a dimensional quantity.
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Yes. A silly coincidence. Were acceleration quoted in any other units, it wouldn't be (very approximately) 9.8. (And besides, 9.8696... *isn't so close* to 9.80665...that it demands explanation)
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All this 'proves' is that pi^2 approximates g when the formula is evaluated at (T = 2, L =1)...
Thanks. Twitter will use this to make your timeline better. UndoUndo
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Hmm, so next question is: what's the source of the error? Difficulty of measuring 2 seconds precisely? Drift in the measurement of a meter?
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In addition to shifts in the definition of a meter, the initial equation is an approximation under the assumption that the angle of displacement is small (i.e. sin(theta) is approximately theta.
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you know that science is not just for earth right?
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you know that (human) science and units of measure were born on Earth, right? ;)
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