Count of number line NR= n+1 as n tends to infinity and count of interval IN= is n+1 instances of1/n+1 as n tends to infinity?
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I guess the problem with proving that this way is the endpoints would be "refracted" at 90 deg and never meet the full line
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@Nonlinearnygma The Lebesgue measure of an open interval and that of its closure are equal.
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Jst replace R line with finite closed interval and re-construct figure. Same proof carries over. Angle of deflection changes. Still 1-1 map.
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