Is there a simple proof?
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This uses Fermat's Little Theorem, which is the general case of what they shared yesterday.pic.twitter.com/IsMZKLHz2T
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Finally something I almost understand...
Thanks. Twitter will use this to make your timeline better. UndoUndo
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The only square of 1 on Fp are 1 or p-1, the other are ≠ of their inverse and cancel out. 1*(p-1)=-1
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By square of 1, I mean element that are their own inverse modulo p, I.e. not cancelled by another element...
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