An infinite sum is defined to be S if it approaches S.
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Now let's see the viz for 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + . . . = −1/12
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Or 1 - 1 + 1 - 1 + 1 - 1 ... = 1/2
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I tried this with a few other numbers and it seems that for any integer a>1, the sum of (1/a)^n for n = 1 to infinity equals 1/(a-1). Neat.
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Let me guess, you're one of those people that think 0.999 repeating isn't the same as 1?
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This one is easier to see the 1/2, but harder to understand why it would keep doing that till infinity.
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The reason why the series is infinite is because there is no "final green rectangle" you can add to the series that fills the square area.
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Fibonacci?
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doesn't look like 1/2 and 1/2 to me... what am I missing?
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Have you ever seen the Ying yang?
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