This requires knowing that pi > e beforehand. Is that easy to show from first principles?
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Wait, if we don't assume that x>0, we cannot make the substitution that x=(π/e)-1. I do not disagree with the proof, just that assumption.
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For fun, here is a short formal proof of that statement in Isabelle/HOL
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Fits the back of the envelope! Doubt it'd fit in the margin though...
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But 5^2 is not greater than 2^5 ... so it is not the same
End of conversation
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Love the back of the envelope proof!
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