The multiplicative inverse of the solution to the Basel problem. I like this. Can someone please link the explanation?
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1/2 of all numbers have a factor of 2, 1/3 have a factor of 3, 1/4 have factor of 4, etc. Two numbers both having a factor of 2 is (1/2)², both having 3 is (1/3)², etc. These are independent events so you add up all the p's.
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What does random mean in this context? A uniform probability distribution doesn't really work.
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Discrete Uniform probability on the set of positive integers
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@swiggityswoi@PrmSwrp The chance of 2 numbers sharing a prime divisor is 1/p^2. Which means the probability of 2 numbers not sharing a prime factor is (1-1/p^2) . Hence the probability of any 2 numbers not sharing any factors is the product of all primes(1-1/p^2)=1/ζ(2)Thanks. Twitter will use this to make your timeline better. UndoUndo
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And one common question would be: what does the ratio of a circle's circumference to its diameter have in common with the probability of two random numbers having no common factor

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Have u seen a channel in yet called 3blue1brown ? If u don't here s a link of one of those videos that make me think for about days, it show the relation of this Euler Identity to circles using a lot of maths and physicshttps://youtu.be/d-o3eB9sfls
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There's another one like this called the secretary problem which boils down to 1/e: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Secretary_problem#1/e-law_of_best_choice … Lovely detail: the professor that explained it to me remained a bachelor until his death.
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I choose 4 and 4
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Proof plz
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