This way of arguing seems a bit backwards to me. π²≈g≈9.8, because the period of a 1-meter-long pendulum is about 2 seconds (for small oscillations).
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The small angle period formula T=2π√(L/g) is true regardless of the value of g, so it's true on Mars or on the Moon as well. So by redefining the units of measurement you can relate the value g to any positive number...
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Probably the weakest post you've made in a while.
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Is everyone missing the point here? The original "metre" was based on this idea - how long does a pendulum need to be to have a 2 second swing - as it could be replicated easily elsewhere. Later definitions referred to distances on the Earth etc but this is what began it all!
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Yeah, it is a valid argument, but it is somewhat surprising, given that the people in the French revolution who were standardizing the meter explicitly rejected this unit of measurement, because the king had advocated it, and of course everything the king does is wrong
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Try again.
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Its a great connection but I feel this is cheating? We set T = 2 and thats cool but now the variable is L and you cant set L as whatever value you wish, rather you have to find L because pi, g, T are all known and there will be only a particular value of L which will satisfy T =2
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It's not the Value of L which is set but its Unit. ;)
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it's because π ≈ sqrt(10) ≈ 3.1622 (Brahmagupta, India, 628).
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Thank you !! where can I read about this?
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